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To pass the Fortinet NSE8_812 exam, candidates must have a deep understanding of Fortinet products and technologies. They must demonstrate their ability to design, implement, and manage complex network security solutions using Fortinet products. NSE8_812 exam is designed for experienced network security professionals who have previous experience working with Fortinet products and solutions.


To pass the Fortinet NSE8_812 exam, candidates must demonstrate mastery of a variety of complex network security concepts and technologies. They must be able to analyze network traffic and identify potential threats, design and implement security policies, and troubleshoot security issues. NSE8_812 exam consists of multiple-choice questions, as well as hands-on lab exercises that require candidates to configure and optimize Fortinet's security solutions in a simulated environment.

 

NEW QUESTION # 15
You are running a diagnose command continuously as traffic flows through a platform with NP6 and you obtain the following output:

Given the information shown in the output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

  • A. The output is showing a packet descriptor queue accumulated counter
  • B. There are packet drops at the XAUI.
  • C. Host-shortcut mode is enabled.
  • D. Enable HPE shaper for the NP6 will change the output
  • E. Enabling bandwidth control between the ISF and the NP will change the output

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
The diagnose command shown in the output is used to display information about NP6 packet descriptor queues. The output shows that there are 16 NP6 units in total, and each unit has four XAUI ports (XA0-XA3). The output also shows that there are some non-zero values in the columns PDQ ACCU (packet descriptor queue accumulated counter) and PDQ DROP (packet descriptor queue drop counter). These values indicate that there are some packet descriptor queues that have reached their maximum capacity and have dropped some packets at the XAUI ports. This could be caused by congestion or misconfiguration of the XAUI ports or the ISF (Internal Switch Fabric). References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/cli-reference/19662/diagnose-np6-pdq The output is showing a packet descriptor queue accumulated counter, which is a measure of the number of packets that have been dropped by the NP6 due to congestion. The counter will increase if there are more packets than the NP6 can handle, which can happen if the bandwidth between the ISF and the NP is not sufficient or if the HPE shaper is enabled.
The output also shows that there are packet drops at the XAUI, which is the interface between the NP6 and the FortiGate's backplane. This means that the NP6 is not able to keep up with the traffic and is dropping packets.
The other statements are not true. Host-shortcut mode is not enabled, and enabling bandwidth control between the ISF and the NP will not change the output. HPE shaper is a feature that can be enabled to improve performance, but it will not change the output of the diagnose command.


NEW QUESTION # 16
You must analyze an event that happened at 20:37 UTC. One log relevant to the event is extracted from FortiGate logs:

The devices and the administrator are all located in different time zones Daylight savings time (DST) is disabled
* The FortiGate is at GMT-1000.
* The FortiAnalyzer is at GMT-0800
* Your browser local time zone is at GMT-03.00
You want to review this log on FortiAnalyzer GUI, what time should you use as a filter?

  • A. 17:37:08
  • B. 10:37:08
  • C. 12.37:08
  • D. 20:37:08

Answer: A

Explanation:
To review this log on FortiAnalyzer GUI, the administrator should use the time filter that matches the local time zone of FortiAnalyzer, which is GMT-0800. Since the log was generated at 20:37 UTC (GMT+0000), the corresponding time in GMT-0800 is 20:37 - 8 hours = 12:37. However, since DST is disabled on FortiAnalyzer, the administrator should add one hour to account for daylight saving time difference, resulting in 12:37 + 1 hour = 13:37. Therefore, the time filter to use is 13:37:08. References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.4.0/administration-guide/103664/time-zone-and-daylight-saving-time


NEW QUESTION # 17
You are running a diagnose command continuously as traffic flows through a platform with NP6 and you obtain the following output:

Given the information shown in the output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

  • A. The output is showing a packet descriptor queue accumulated counter
  • B. There are packet drops at the XAUI.
  • C. Host-shortcut mode is enabled.
  • D. Enable HPE shaper for the NP6 will change the output
  • E. Enabling bandwidth control between the ISF and the NP will change the output

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
The diagnose command shown in the output is used to display information about NP6 packet descriptor queues. The output shows that there are 16 NP6 units in total, and each unit has four XAUI ports (XA0-XA3). The output also shows that there are some non-zero values in the columns PDQ ACCU (packet descriptor queue accumulated counter) and PDQ DROP (packet descriptor queue drop counter). These values indicate that there are some packet descriptor queues that have reached their maximum capacity and have dropped some packets at the XAUI ports. This could be caused by congestion or misconfiguration of the XAUI ports or the ISF (Internal Switch Fabric). Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/cli-reference/19662/diagnose-np6-pdq


NEW QUESTION # 18
Refer to the exhibit.

You are operating an internal network with multiple OSPF routers on the same LAN segment. FGT_3 needs to be added to the OSPF network and has the configuration shown in the exhibit. FGT_3 is not establishing any OSPF connection.
What needs to be changed to the configuration to make sure FGT_3 will establish OSPF neighbors without affecting the DR/BDR election?

  • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The OSPF configuration shown in the exhibit is using the default priority value of 1 for the interface port1. This means that FGT_3 will participate in the DR/BDR election process with the other OSPF routers on the same LAN segment. However, this is not desirable because FGT_3 is a new device that needs to be added to the OSPF network without affecting the existing DR/BDR election. Therefore, to make sure FGT_3 will establish OSPF neighbors without affecting the DR/BDR election, the priority value of the interface port1 should be changed to 0. This will prevent FGT_3 from becoming a DR or BDR and allow it to form OSPF adjacencies with the current DR and BDR. Option B shows the correct configuration that changes the priority value to 0. Option A is incorrect because it does not change the priority value. Option C is incorrect because it changes the network type to point-to-point, which is not suitable for a LAN segment with multiple OSPF routers. Option D is incorrect because it changes the area ID to 0.0.0.1, which does not match the area ID of the other OSPF routers on the same LAN segment. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/administration-guide/358640/basic-ospf-example


NEW QUESTION # 19
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer wants FortiClient EMS configured to deploy to 1500 endpoints. The deployment will be integrated with FortiOS and there is an Active Directory server.
Given the configuration shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the installation are correct? (Choose two.)

  • A. If no client update time is specified on EMS, the user will be able to choose the time of installation if they wish to delay.
  • B. You can only deploy initial installations to Windows clients.
  • C. You must use Standard or Enterprise SQL Server rather than the included SQL Server Express
  • D. The Windows clients only require "File and Printer Sharing0 allowed and the rest is handled by Active Directory group policy
  • E. A client can be eligible for multiple enabled configurations on the EMS server, and one will be chosen based on first priority

Answer: B,E

Explanation:
B is correct because a client can be eligible for multiple enabled configurations on the EMS server, and one will be chosen based on first priority. This is explained in the FortiClient EMS Administration Guide under Deployment & Installers > Manage Deployment > Managing deployment configuration priority levels. C is correct because you can only deploy initial installations to Windows clients using FortiClient EMS. This is also explained in the FortiClient EMS Administration Guide under Deployment & Installers > Deploying FortiClient software to endpoints. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/forticlient/7.0.7/ems-administration-guide/278884/deployment-installers https://docs.fortinet.com/document/forticlient/7.0.7/ems-administration-guide/374506/deploying-forticlient-software-to-endpoints


NEW QUESTION # 20
You are troubleshooting a FortiMail Cloud service integrated with Office 365 where outgoing emails are not reaching the recipients' mail What are two possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

  • A. The FortiMail access control rules to relay from Office 365 servers public IPs are missing.
  • B. The FortiMail DKIM key was not set using the Auto Generation option.
  • C. A Mail Flow connector from the Exchange Admin Center has not been set properly to the FortiMail Cloud FQDN.
  • D. The FortiMail access control rule to relay from Office 365 servers FQDN is missing.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
a) The FortiMail access control rule to relay from Office 365 servers FQDN is missing.
If the access control rule to relay from Office 365 servers FQDN is missing, then FortiMail will not be able to send emails to Office 365. This is because the access control rule specifies which IP addresses or domains are allowed to relay emails through FortiMail.
b) A Mail Flow connector from the Exchange Admin Center has not been set properly to the FortiMail Cloud FQDN.
If the Mail Flow connector from the Exchange Admin Center is not set properly to the FortiMail Cloud FQDN, then Office 365 will not be able to send emails to FortiMail. This is because the Mail Flow connector specifies which SMTP server is used to send emails to external recipients.


NEW QUESTION # 21
Refer to the exhibit showing FortiGate configurations

FortiManager VM high availability (HA) is not functioning as expected after being added to an existing deployment.
The administrator finds that VRRP HA mode is selected, but primary and secondary roles are greyed out in the GUI The managed devices never show online when FMG-B becomes primary, but they will show online whenever the FMG-A becomes primary.
What change will correct HA functionality in this scenario?

  • A. Unset the primary and secondary roles in the FortiManager CLI configuration so VRRP will decide who is primary.
  • B. Change the FortiManager IP address on the managed FortiGate to 10.3.106.65.
  • C. Change the priority of FMG-A to be numerically lower for higher preference
  • D. Make the monitored IP to match on both FortiManager devices.

Answer: D

Explanation:
B is correct because the monitored IP must match on both FortiManager devices for HA to function properly. This is explained in the FortiManager Administration Guide under High Availability > Configuring HA options > Configuring HA options using the GUI. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimanager/7.4.0/administration-guide/568591/high-availability https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimanager/7.4.0/administration-guide/568591/high-availability/568592/configuring-ha-options


NEW QUESTION # 22
A retail customer with a FortiADC HA cluster load balancing five webservers in L7 Full NAT mode is receiving reports of users not able to access their website during a sale event. But for clients that were able to connect, the website works fine.
CPU usage on the FortiADC and the web servers is low, application and database servers are still able to handle more traffic, and the bandwidth utilization is under 30%.
Which two options can resolve this situation? (Choose two.)

  • A. Add a connection-pool to the FortiADC virtual server
  • B. Add more web servers to the real server poof
  • C. Change the persistence rule to LB_PERSIS_SSL_SESSJD.
  • D. Disable SSL between the FortiADC and the web servers

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
Option B: Adding more web servers to the real server pool will increase the overall capacity of the load balancer, which should help to resolve the issue of users not being able to access the website.
Option D: Adding a connection-pool to the FortiADC virtual server will allow the load balancer to cache connections to the web servers, which can help to improve performance and reduce the number of dropped connections.
Option A: Changing the persistence rule to LB_PERSIS_SSL_SESSJD would only be necessary if the current persistence rule is not working properly. In this case, the CPU usage on the FortiADC and the web servers is low, so the persistence rule is likely not the issue.
Option C: Disabling SSL between the FortiADC and the web servers would reduce the load on the FortiADC, but it would also make the website less secure. Since the bandwidth utilization is under 30%, it is unlikely that disabling SSL would resolve the issue.


NEW QUESTION # 23
A remote worker requests access to an SSH server inside the network. You deployed a ZTNA Rule to their FortiClient. You need to follow the security requirements to inspect this traffic.
Which two statements are true regarding the requirements? (Choose two.)

  • A. FortiGate can perform SSH access proxy host-key validation.
  • B. You need to configure a FortiClient SSL-VPN tunnel to inspect the SSH traffic.
  • C. Traffic is discarded as ZTNA does not support SSH connection rules
  • D. SSH traffic is tunneled between the client and the access proxy over HTTPS

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
ZTNA supports SSH connection rules that allow remote workers to access SSH servers inside the network through an HTTPS tunnel between the client and the access proxy (FortiGate). The access proxy acts as an SSH client to connect to the real SSH server on behalf of the user, and performs host-key validation to verify the identity of the server. The user can use any SSH client that supports HTTPS proxy settings, such as PuTTY or OpenSSH. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/ztna-deployment/899992/configuring-ztna-rules-to-control-access


NEW QUESTION # 24
Refer to the exhibits.


A customer wants to deploy 12 FortiAP 431F devices on high density conference center, but they do not currently have any PoE switches to connect them to. They want to be able to run them at full power while having network redundancy From the FortiSwitch models and sample retail prices shown in the exhibit, which build of materials would have the lowest cost, while fulfilling the customer's requirements?

  • A. 1x FortiSwitch 248EFPOE
  • B. 2x FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE
  • C. 2x FortiSwitch 224E-POE
  • D. 2x FortiSwitch 124E-FPOE

Answer: B

Explanation:
The customer wants to deploy 12 FortiAP 431F devices on a high density conference center, but they do not have any PoE switches to connect them to. They want to be able to run them at full power while having network redundancy. PoE switches are switches that can provide both data and power to connected devices over Ethernet cables, eliminating the need for separate power adapters or outlets. PoE switches are useful for deploying devices such as wireless access points, IP cameras, and VoIP phones in locations where power outlets are scarce or inconvenient. The FortiAP 431F is a wireless access point that supports PoE+ (IEEE 802.3at) standard, which can deliver up to 30W of power per port. The FortiAP 431F has a maximum power consumption of 25W when running at full power. Therefore, to run 12 FortiAP 431F devices at full power, the customer needs PoE switches that can provide at least 300W of total PoE power budget (25W x 12). The customer also needs network redundancy, which means that they need at least two PoE switches to connect the FortiAP devices in case one switch fails or loses power. From the FortiSwitch models and sample retail prices shown in the exhibit, the build of materials that has the lowest cost while fulfilling the customer's requirements is 2x FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE. The FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE is a PoE switch that has 48 GE ports with PoE+ capability and a total PoE power budget of 370W. It also has 4x 10 GE SFP+ uplink ports for high-speed connectivity. The sample retail price of the FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE is $1,995, which means that two units will cost $3,990. This is the lowest cost among the other options that can meet the customer's requirements. Option A is incorrect because the FortiSwitch 248EFPOE is a non-PoE switch that has no PoE capability or power budget. It cannot provide power to the FortiAP devices over Ethernet cables. Option B is incorrect because the FortiSwitch 224E-POE is a PoE switch that has only 24 GE ports with PoE+ capability and a total PoE power budget of 185W. It cannot provide enough ports or power to run 12 FortiAP devices at full power. Option D is incorrect because the FortiSwitch 124E-FPOE is a PoE switch that has only 24 GE ports with PoE+ capability and a total PoE power budget of 185W. It cannot provide enough ports or power to run 12 FortiAP devices at full power. References: https://www.fortinet.com/content/dam/fortinet/assets/data-sheets/FortiSwitch_Secure_Access_Series.pdf https://www.fortinet.com/content/dam/fortinet/assets/data-sheets/FortiAP_400_Series.pdf


NEW QUESTION # 25
Refer to the exhibit, which shows the high availability configuration for the FortiAuthenticator (FAC1).

Based on this information, which statement is true about the next FortiAuthenticator (FAC2) member that will join an HA cluster with this FortiAuthenticator (FAC1)?

  • A. FSSO sessions from FAC1 will be synchronized to FAC2.
  • B. FAC2 can only process requests when FAC1 fails.
  • C. The FortiToken license will need to be installed on the FAC2.
  • D. FAC2 can have its HA interface on a different network than FAC1.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When FortiAuthenticator operates in cluster mode, it provides active-passive failover and synchronization of all configuration and data, including FSSO sessions, between the cluster members. Therefore, if FAC1 is the active unit and FAC2 is the standby unit, any FSSO sessions from FAC1 will be synchronized to FAC2. If FAC1 fails, FAC2 will take over the active role and continue to process the FSSO sessions. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiauthenticator/6.1.2/administration-guide/122076/high-availability


NEW QUESTION # 26
Refer to the exhibits.

The exhibits show a FortiGate network topology and the output of the status of high availability on the FortiGate.
Given this information, which statement is correct?

  • A. The cluster members are on the same network and the IP addresses were statically assigned.
  • B. The ethertype values of the HA packets are 0x8890, 0x8891, and 0x8892
  • C. FGVMEVLQOG33WM3D and FGVMEVGCJNHFYI4A share a virtual MAC address.
  • D. The cluster mode can support a maximum of four (4) FortiGate VMs

Answer: C

Explanation:
The output of the status of high availability on the FortiGate shows that the cluster mode is active-passive, which means that only one FortiGate unit is active at a time, while the other unit is in standby mode. The active unit handles all traffic and also sends HA heartbeat packets to monitor the standby unit. The standby unit becomes active if it stops receiving heartbeat packets from the active unit, or if it receives a higher priority from another cluster unit. In active-passive mode, all cluster units share a virtual MAC address for each interface, which is used as the source MAC address for all packets forwarded by the cluster. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/cookbook/103439/high-availability-with-two-fortigates


NEW QUESTION # 27
Wh.ch feature must you enable on the BGP neighbors to accomplish this goal?

  • A. Deterministic-med
  • B. Synchronization
  • C. Soft-reconfiguration
  • D. Graceful-restart

Answer: D

Explanation:
Graceful-restart is a feature that allows BGP neighbors to maintain their routing information during a BGP restart or failover event, without disrupting traffic forwarding or causing route flaps. Graceful-restart works by allowing a BGP speaker (the restarting router) to notify its neighbors (the helper routers) that it is about to restart or failover, and request them to preserve their routing information and forwarding state for a certain period of time (the restart time). The helper routers then mark the routes learned from the restarting router as stale, but keep them in their routing table and continue forwarding traffic based on them until they receive an end-of-RIB marker from the restarting router or until the restart time expires. This way, graceful-restart can minimize traffic disruption and routing instability during a BGP restart or failover event. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/cookbook/19662/bgp-graceful-restart


NEW QUESTION # 28
Refer to the exhibit.

To facilitate a large-scale deployment of SD-WAN/ADVPN with FortiGate devices, you are tasked with configuring the FortiGate devices to support injecting of IKE routes on the ADVPN shortcut tunnels.
Which three commands must be added or changed to the FortiGate spoke config vpn ipsec phasei-interface options referenced in the exhibit for the VPN interface to enable this capability? (Choose three.)

  • A. set mode-cfg-allow-client-selector enable
  • B. set add-route enable
  • C. set mode-cfg enable
  • D. set ike-version 1
  • E. set net-device disable

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation:
A is correct because net-device disable prevents the VPN interface from being added to the routing table as a connected route. This allows IKE routes to be injected instead. D is correct because add-route enable enables IKE route injection on the VPN interface. E is correct because mode-cfg-allow-client-selector enable allows the VPN interface to accept IKE routes from any peer that matches the phase 1 configuration. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.1/administration-guide/490352/advpn https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.1/administration-guide/490352/advpn-configuration


NEW QUESTION # 29
Refer to the exhibit showing a FortiSOAR playbook.

You are investigating a suspicious e-mail alert on FortiSOAR, and after reviewing the executed playbook, you can see that it requires intervention.
What should be your next step?

  • A. Reply to the e-mail with the requested Playbook action
  • B. Run the Mark Drive by Download playbook action
  • C. Go to the Incident Response tasks dashboard and run the pending actions
  • D. Click on the notification icon on FortiSOAR GUI and run the pending input action

Answer: C

Explanation:
The exhibited playbook requires intervention, which means that the playbook has reached a point where it needs a human operator to take action. The next step should be to go to the Incident Response tasks dashboard and run the pending actions. This will allow you to see the pending actions that need to be taken and to take those actions.
The other options are not correct. Option B will only show you the notification icon, but it will not allow you to run the pending input action. Option C will run the Mark Drive by Download playbook action, but this is not the correct action to take in this case. Option D is not a valid option.
Here are some additional details about pending actions in FortiSOAR:
Pending actions are actions that need to be taken by a human operator.
Pending actions are displayed in the Incident Response tasks dashboard.
Pending actions can be run by clicking on the action in the dashboard.


NEW QUESTION # 30
A remote worker requests access to an SSH server inside the network. You deployed a ZTNA Rule to their FortiClient. You need to follow the security requirements to inspect this traffic.
Which two statements are true regarding the requirements? (Choose two.)

  • A. FortiGate can perform SSH access proxy host-key validation.
  • B. You need to configure a FortiClient SSL-VPN tunnel to inspect the SSH traffic.
  • C. Traffic is discarded as ZTNA does not support SSH connection rules
  • D. SSH traffic is tunneled between the client and the access proxy over HTTPS

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
ZTNA supports SSH connection rules that allow remote workers to access SSH servers inside the network through an HTTPS tunnel between the client and the access proxy (FortiGate). The access proxy acts as an SSH client to connect to the real SSH server on behalf of the user, and performs host-key validation to verify the identity of the server. The user can use any SSH client that supports HTTPS proxy settings, such as PuTTY or OpenSSH. References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/ztna-deployment/899992/configuring-ztna-rules-to-control-access


NEW QUESTION # 31
Refer to the exhibit showing an SD-WAN configuration.

According to the exhibit, if an internal user pings 10.1.100.2 and 10.1.100.22 from subnet 172.16.205.0/24, which outgoing interfaces will be used?

  • A. port16 and port15
  • B. port1 and port1
  • C. port1 and port15
  • D. port16 and port1

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the exhibit, the SD-WAN configuration has two rules: one for traffic to 10.1.100.0/24 subnet, and one for traffic to 10.1.100.16/28 subnet. The first rule uses the best quality strategy, which selects the SD-WAN member with the best measured quality based on performance SLA metrics. The second rule uses the manual strategy, which specifies port1 as the SD-WAN member to select. Therefore, if an internal user pings 10.1.100.2 and 10.1.100.22 from subnet 172.16.205.0/24, the outgoing interfaces will be port16 and port1 respectively, assuming that port16 has the best quality among the SD-WAN members. References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.14/cookbook/218559/configuring-the-sd-wan-interface


NEW QUESTION # 32
You are troubleshooting a FortiMail Cloud service integrated with Office 365 where outgoing emails are not reaching the recipients' mail What are two possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

  • A. The FortiMail access control rule to relay from Office 365 servers FQDN is missing.
  • B. The FortiMail access control rules to relay from Office 365 servers public IPs are missing.
  • C. The FortiMail DKIM key was not set using the Auto Generation option.
  • D. A Mail Flow connector from the Exchange Admin Center has not been set properly to the FortiMail Cloud FQDN.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
FortiMail Cloud service is a cloud-based email security solution that integrates with Office 365 to provide protection against spam, malware, phishing, data loss, etc. To use FortiMail Cloud service with Office 365, users need to configure both FortiMail Cloud settings and Office 365 settings properly. One possible reason for outgoing emails not reaching the recipients' mailboxes is that the FortiMail access control rules to relay from Office 365 servers public IPs are missing. This means that FortiMail Cloud service does not recognize the Office 365 servers as authorized senders and rejects the outgoing emails. Users need to add the Office 365 servers public IPs to the FortiMail access control rules to allow relaying. Another possible reason for outgoing emails not reaching the recipients' mailboxes is that a Mail Flow connector from the Exchange Admin Center has not been set properly to the FortiMail Cloud FQDN. This means that Office 365 does not route the outgoing emails to the FortiMail Cloud service for scanning and delivery. Users need to create a Mail Flow connector from the Exchange Admin Center and specify the FortiMail Cloud FQDN as the smart host. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimail-cloud/6.4.0/administration-guide/19662/integrating-fortimail-cloud-with-office-365


NEW QUESTION # 33
A customer is planning on moving their secondary data center to a cloud-based laaS. They want to place all the Oracle-based systems Oracle Cloud, while the other systems will be on Microsoft Azure with ExpressRoute service to their main data center.
They have about 200 branches with two internet services as their only WAN connections. As a security consultant you are asked to design an architecture using Fortinet products with security, redundancy and performance as a priority.
Which two design options are true based on these requirements? (Choose two.)

  • A. Two ExpressRoute services to the main data center are required to implement SD-WAN between a FortiGate VM in Azure and a FortiGate device at the data center edge
  • B. Systems running on Azure will need to go through the main data center to access the services on Oracle Cloud.
  • C. Branch FortiGate devices must be configured as VPN clients for the branches' internal network to be able to access Oracle services without using public IPs.
  • D. Use FortiGate VM for IPSEC over ExpressRoute, as traffic is not encrypted by Azure.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
To secure the traffic between Azure and the main data center, a FortiGate VM can be deployed in Azure and configured to use IPSEC over ExpressRoute, as traffic is not encrypted by Azure by default. This also allows the use of Fortinet security features such as antivirus, IPS, web filtering, and application control. To implement SD-WAN between Azure and the main data center, two ExpressRoute services are required to provide redundant paths and load balancing. A FortiGate device at the data center edge can be configured to use SD-WAN rules to select the best path based on performance, availability, and cost. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/cookbook/103440/ipsec-vpn-between-fortigate-and-azure https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/cookbook/103441/sd-wan-between-fortigate-and-azure


NEW QUESTION # 34
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has deployed a FortiGate 200F high-availability (HA) cluster that contains & TPM chip. The exhibit shows output from the FortiGate CLI session where the administrator enabled TPM.
Following these actions, the administrator immediately notices that both FortiGate high availability (HA) status and FortiManager status for the FortiGate are negatively impacted.
What are the two reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)

  • A. The FortiGate has not finished the auto-update process to synchronize the new configuration to FortiManager yet.
  • B. Configuration for TPM is not synchronized between FortiGate HA cluster members.
  • C. The private-data-encryption key entered on the primary did not match the value that the TPM expected.
  • D. TPM functionality is not yet compatible with FortiGate HA D The administrator needs to manually enter the hex private data encryption key in FortiManager

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The two reasons for the negative impact on the FortiGate HA status and FortiManager status after enabling TPM are:
The private-data-encryption key entered on the primary unit did not match the value that the TPM expected. This could happen if the TPM was previously enabled and then disabled, and the key was changed in between. The TPM will reject the new key and cause an error in the configuration synchronization.
Configuration for TPM is not synchronized between FortiGate HA cluster members. Each cluster member must have the same private-data-encryption key to form a valid HA cluster and synchronize their configurations. However, enabling TPM on one unit does not automatically enable it on the other units, and the key must be manually entered on each unit. To resolve these issues, the administrator should disable TPM on all units, clear the TPM data, and then enable TPM again with the same private-data-encryption key on each unit. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/cookbook/103437/inbound-ssl-inspection https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/cookbook/103438/application-detection-on-ssl-offloaded-traffic


NEW QUESTION # 35
You must configure an environment with dual-homed servers connected to a pair of FortiSwitch units using an MCLAG.
Multicast traffic is expected in this environment, and you should ensure unnecessary traffic is pruned from links that do not have a multicast listener.
In which two ways must you configure the igmps-f lood-traffic and igmps-flood-report settings? (Choose two.)

  • A. disable on ICL trunks
  • B. disable on the ISL and FortiLink trunks
  • C. enable on ICL trunks
  • D. enable on the ISL and FortiLink trunks

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
A is correct because disabling igmps-flood-traffic and igmps-flood-report on ICL trunks prevents unnecessary multicast traffic from being flooded across the MCLAG cluster members. C is correct because disabling igmps-flood-traffic and igmps-flood-report on the ISL and FortiLink trunks prevents unnecessary multicast traffic from being flooded to other switches or FortiGates that do not have multicast listeners. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiswitches/6.4.0/administration-guide/381057/multicast-forwarding https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiswitches/6.4.0/administration-guide/381057/multicast-forwarding/381058/configuring-multicast-forwarding


NEW QUESTION # 36
Refer to the exhibit showing the history logs from a FortiMail device.

Which FortiMail email security feature can an administrator enable to treat these emails as spam?

  • A. Impersonation analysis in an antispam profile
  • B. DKIM validation in a session profile
  • C. Sender domain validation in a session profile
  • D. Soft fail SPF validation in an antispam profile

Answer: A

Explanation:
Impersonation analysis is a feature that detects emails that attempt to impersonate a trusted sender, such as a company executive or a well-known brand, by using spoofed or look-alike email addresses. This feature can help prevent phishing and business email compromise (BEC) attacks. Impersonation analysis can be enabled in an antispam profile and applied to a firewall policy. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimail/6.4.0/administration-guide/103663/impersonation-analysis


NEW QUESTION # 37
Refer to the exhibit.

A FortiWeb appliance is configured for load balancing web sessions to internal web servers. The Server Pool is configured as shown in the exhibit.
How will the sessions be load balanced between server 1 and server 2 during normal operation?

  • A. Server 1 will receive 25% of the sessions, Server 2 will receive 75% of the sessions
  • B. Server 1 will receive 20% of the sessions, Server 2 will receive 66.6% of the sessions
  • C. Server 1 will receive 0% of the sessions Server 2 will receive 100% of the sessions
  • D. Server 1 will receive 33.3% of the sessions, Server 2 will receive 66 6% of the sessions

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Server Pool in the exhibit is configured with a weight of 20 for server 1 and a weight of 60 for server 2. This means that server 1 will receive 20% of the sessions and server 2 will receive 75% of the sessions.
The following formula is used to calculate the load balancing between servers in a Server Pool:
weight_of_server_1 / (weight_of_server_1 + weight_of_server_2)
In this case, the formula is:
20 / (20 + 60) = 20 / 80 = 0.25 = 25%
Therefore, server 1 will receive 25% of the sessions and server 2 will receive 75% of the sessions.


NEW QUESTION # 38
An automation stitch was configured using an incoming webhook as the trigger named 'my_incoming_webhook'. The action is configured to execute the CLI Script shown:

  • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.

Answer: D

Explanation:
To execute the CLI script shown using an incoming webhook as the trigger, the correct syntax for the curl command is: curl -X POST -H "Content-Type: application/json" -d '{"trigger_name":"my_incoming_webhook"}' https://fortisoar.example.com/api/v1/trigger This command will send a POST request to the FortiSOAR API endpoint with the trigger name and the content type as JSON. The FortiSOAR API will then execute the automation stitch that matches the trigger name and run the CLI script on the FortiGate device. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortisoar/7.0.0/administration-guide/103440/automation-stitches https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortisoar/7.0.0/administration-guide/103441/incoming-webhook


NEW QUESTION # 39
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