Latest ECCouncil 212-82 Free Certification Exam Material with 163 Q&As
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ECCouncil 212-82 (Certified Cybersecurity Technician) Exam is a certification designed for professionals who want to enhance their skills and knowledge in the field of cybersecurity. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification is ideal for individuals who want to become a cybersecurity technician, security analyst, or security consultant. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification validates the candidate's understanding of various cybersecurity concepts, including network security, cryptography, threat intelligence, and incident response.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Zion belongs to a category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. He was instructed by the management to check the functionality of equipment related to physical security. Identify the designation of Zion.
- A. Safety officer
- B. Chief information security officer
- C. Guard
- D. Supervisor
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 57
Bob was recently hired by a medical company after it experienced a major cyber security breach. Many patients are complaining that their personal medical records are fully exposed on the Internet and someone can find them with a simple Google search. Bob's boss is very worried because of regulations that protect those dat a. Which of the following regulations is mostly violated?
- A. HIPPA/PHl
- B. ISO 2002
- C. Pll
- D. PCIDSS
Answer: A
Explanation:
HIPPA/PHI is the regulation that is mostly violated in the above scenario. HIPPA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a US federal law that sets standards for protecting the privacy and security of health information. PHI (Protected Health Information) is any information that relates to the health or health care of an individual and that can identify the individual, such as name, address, medical records, etc. HIPPA/PHI requires covered entities, such as health care providers, health plans, or health care clearinghouses, and their business associates, to safeguard PHI from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure . In the scenario, the medical company experienced a major cyber security breach that exposed the personal medical records of many patients on the internet, which violates HIPPA/PHI regulations. PII (Personally Identifiable Information) is any information that can be used to identify a specific individual, such as name, address, social security number, etc. PII is not specific to health information and can be regulated by various laws, such as GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), CCPA (California Consumer Privacy Act), etc. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of standards that applies to entities that store, process, or transmit payment card information, such as merchants, service providers, or payment processors. PCI DSS requires them to protect cardholder data from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. ISO 2002 (International Organization for Standardization 2002) is not a regulation, but a standard for information security management systems that provides guidelines and best practices for organizations to manage their information security risks.
NEW QUESTION # 58
You are a penetration tester working to test the user awareness of the employees of the client xyz. You harvested two employees' emails from some public sources and are creating a client-side backdoor to send it to the employees via email. Which stage of the cyber kill chain are you at?
- A. Exploitation
- B. Reconnaissance
- C. Command and control
- D. Weaponization
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 59
A renowned research institute with a high-security wireless network recently encountered an advanced cyber attack. The attack was not detected by traditional security measures andresulted in significant data exfiltration.
The wireless network was equipped with WPA3 encryption, MAC address filtering, and had disabled SSID broadcasting. Intriguingly. the attack occurred without any noticeable disruption or changes in network performance. After an exhaustive forensic analysis, the cybersecurity team pinpointed the attack method.
Which of the following wireless network-specific attacks was most likely used?
- A. Jamming Attack, disrupting network communications with interference signals
- B. Bluesnarfing. exploiting Bluetooth connections to access network data
- C. Evil Twin Attack, where a rogue access point mimics a legitimate one to capture network traffic
- D. KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack), exploiting vulnerabilities in the WPA2 protocol
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Definition of Evil Twin Attack:
* An Evil Twin Attack involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users connect to this rogue AP, allowing the attacker to intercept and capture network traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 60
FusionTech, a leading tech company specializing in quantum computing, is based in downtown San Francisco, with its headquarters situated In a multi-tenant skyscraper. Their office spans across three floors. The cutting-edge technology and the proprietary data that FusionTech possesses make it a prime target for both cyber and physical threats. Recently, during an internal security review, it was discovered that an unauthorized individual was spotted on one of the floors. There was no breach, but it raised an alarm. The management wants to address this vulnerability without causing too much inconvenience to its 2000+ employees and the other tenants of the building.
Given FusionTech's unique challenges, which measure should it primarily consider to bolster its workplace security?
- A. Introduce an employee badge system with time-based access control.
- B. Build a separate entrance and elevator for FusionTech employees.
- C. Implement retina scanning at every floor entrance.
- D. Station security personnel on every floor.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Access Control:
* Implementing an employee badge system with time-based access control ensures that only authorized personnel can access specific areas within the office, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Initiate an SSH Connection to a machine that has SSH enabled in the network. After connecting to the machine find the file flag.txt and choose the content hidden in the file. Credentials for SSH login are provided below:
Hint:
Username: sam
Password: admin@l23
- A. sam2@bob
- B. bob@sam
- C. bob2@sam
- D. sam@bob
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 62
Zion belongs to a category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. He was instructed by the management to check the functionality of equipment related to physical security. Identify the designation of Zion.
- A. Safety officer
- B. Chief information security officer
- C. Guard
- D. Supervisor
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, as it identifies the designation of Zion. A guard is a person who is responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. A guard typically performs tasks such as:
* Checking the functionality of equipment related to physical security
* Monitoring the surveillance cameras and alarms
* Controlling the access to restricted areas
* Responding to emergencies or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion belongs to this category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A supervisor is a person who is responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees. A supervisor typically performs tasks such as:
* Assigning tasks and responsibilities to employees
* Evaluating the performance and productivity of employees
* Providing feedback and guidance to employees
* Resolving conflicts or issues among employees
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A chief information security officer (CISO) is a person who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for an organization. A CISO typically performs tasks such as:
* Developing and implementing security policies and standards
* Managing security risks and compliance
* Leading security teams and projects
* Communicating with senior management and stakeholders
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for an organization. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A safety officer is a person who is responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization. A safety officer typically performs tasks such as:
* Conducting safety inspections and audits
* Identifying and eliminating hazards and risks
* Providing safety training and awareness
* Reporting and investigating accidents or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization. References: Section 7.1
NEW QUESTION # 63
Cassius, a security professional, works for the risk management team in an organization. The team is responsible for performing various activities involved in the risk management process. In this process, Cassius was instructed to select and implement appropriate controls on the identified risks in order to address the risks based on their severity level.
Which of the following risk management phases was Cassius instructed to perform in the above scenario?
- A. Risk prioritization
- B. Risk analysis
- C. Risk treatment
- D. Risk identification
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk treatment is the risk management phase that Cassius was instructed to perform in the above scenario. Risk management is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and reviewing risks that can affect an organization's objectives, assets, or operations. Risk management phases can be summarized as follows: risk identification, risk analysis, risk prioritization, risk treatment, and risk monitoring . Risk identification is the risk management phase that involves identifying and documenting potential sources, causes, events, and impacts of risks. Risk analysis is the risk management phase that involves assessing and quantifying the likelihood and consequences of risks. Risk prioritization is the risk management phase that involves ranking risks based on their severity level and determining which risks need immediate attention or action. Risk treatment is the risk management phase that involves selecting and implementing appropriate controls or strategies to address risks based on their severity level . Risk treatment can include avoiding, transferring, reducing, or accepting risks. Risk monitoring is the risk management phase that involves tracking and reviewing the performance and effectiveness of risk controls or strategies over time.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Walker, a security team member at an organization, was instructed to check if a deployed cloud service is working as expected. He performed an independent examination of cloud service controls to verify adherence to standards through a review of objective evidence. Further, Walker evaluated the services provided by the CSP regarding security controls, privacy impact, and performance.
Identify the role played by Walker in the above scenario.
- A. Cloud carrier
- B. Cloud provider
- C. Cloud consumer
- D. Cloud auditor
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 65
Alpha Finance, a leading banking institution, is launching anew mobile banking app. Given the sensitive financial data involved, it wants to ensure that Its application follows the best security practices. As the primary recommendation, which guideline should Alpha Finance prioritize?
- A. Providing an in-app VPN for secure transactions
- B. Employing multi-factor authentication (MFA) for user logins
- C. Encouraging users to update to the latest version of their OS
- D. Embedding an antivirus within the app
Answer: B
Explanation:
For a mobile banking app, ensuring secure user authentication is crucial. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) provides a robust security layer:
* Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA):
* Definition: MFA requires users to provide two or more verification factors to gain access, combining something they know (password), something they have (smartphone), and something they are (biometric verification).
* Security Benefits: Significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access even if one factor is compromised.
* Implementation:
* User Convenience: Integrate seamlessly into the app to maintain a positive user experience.
* Enhanced Security: Protects against various attack vectors, including phishing, brute force attacks, and credential stuffing.
References:
* NIST Digital Identity Guidelines:NIST SP 800-63
* OWASP Mobile Security Testing Guide: OWASP MSTG
NEW QUESTION # 66
You've been called in as a computer forensics investigator to handle a case involving a missing company laptop from the accounting department, which contained sensitive financial data. The company suspects a potential data breach and wants to recover any evidence from the missing device. What is your MOST important initial action regarding the digital evidence?
- A. Interview company personnel to understand the missing laptop's usage.
- B. Turn on the laptop (if found) and search for deleted files.
- C. Secure the scene where the laptop was last seen (if possible).
- D. Report the incident to law enforcement immediately.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In handling a case involving a missing laptop with sensitive financial data, the most important initial action regarding digital evidence is:
* Securing the Scene:
* Prevent Contamination: Secure the location where the laptop was last seen to prevent any further tampering or contamination of potential evidence.
* Preservation: Ensure that any physical evidence related to the incident is preserved for further investigation.
* Subsequent Steps:
* Investigation: After securing the scene, proceed with interviewing personnel, reporting the incident to law enforcement, and analyzing the laptop (if found) without turning it on to avoid altering any evidence.
References:
* Guidelines for handling digital evidence:NIST Digital Evidence
* Best practices in digital forensics: SANS Institute
NEW QUESTION # 67
Camden, a network specialist in an organization, monitored the behavior of the organizational network using SIFM from a control room. The SIEM detected suspicious activity and sent an alert to the camer a. Based on the severity of the incident displayed on the screen, Camden made the correct decision and immediately launched defensive actions to prevent further exploitation by attackers.
Which of the following SIEM functions allowed Camden to view suspicious behavior and make correct decisions during a security incident?
- A. Dashboard
- B. Log Retention
- C. Application log monitoring
- D. Data aggregation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dashboard is the SIEM function that allowed Camden to view suspicious behavior and make correct decisions during a security incident. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a system or software that collects, analyzes, and correlates security data from various sources, such as logs, alerts, events, etc., and provides a centralized view and management of the security posture of a network or system. SIEM can be used to detect, prevent, or respond to security incidents or threats. SIEM consists of various functions or components that perform different tasks or roles. Dashboard is a SIEM function that provides a graphical user interface (GUI) that displays various security metrics, indicators, alerts, reports, etc., in an organized and interactive manner. Dashboard can be used to view suspicious behavior and make correct decisions during a security incident. In the scenario, Camden monitored the behavior of the organizational network using SIEM from a control room. The SIEM detected suspicious activity and sent an alert to Camden. Based on the severity of the incident displayed on the screen, Camden made the correct decision and immediately launched defensive actions to prevent further exploitation by attackers. This means that he used the dashboard function of SIEM for this purpose. Application log monitoring is a SIEM function that collects and analyzes application logs, which are records of events or activities that occur within an application or software. Log retention is an SIEM function that stores and preserves logs for a certain period of time or indefinitely for future reference or analysis. Data aggregation is an SIEM function that combines and normalizes data from different sources into a common format or structure.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Kevin, a professional hacker, wants to penetrate CyberTech Inc.'s network. He employed a technique, using which he encoded packets with Unicode characters. The company's IDS cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them.
What is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system?
- A. Session splicing
- B. Urgency flag
- C. Obfuscating
- D. Desynchronization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Obfuscating is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system in the above scenario. Obfuscating is a technique that involves encoding or modifying packets or data with various methods or characters to make them unreadable or unrecognizable by an IDS (Intrusion Detection System). Obfuscating can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on signatures or patterns to detect malicious activities. Obfuscating can include encoding packets with Unicode characters, which are characters that can represent various languages and symbols. The IDS system cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them and execute them normally. Desynchronization is a technique that involves creating discrepancies or inconsistencies between the state of a connection as seen by an IDS system and the state of a connection as seen by the end hosts. Desynchronization can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on stateful inspection to track and analyze connections. Desynchronization can include sending packets with invalid sequence numbers, which are numbers that indicate the order of packets in a connection. Session splicing is a technique that involves splitting or dividing packets or data into smaller fragments or segmentsto make them harder to detect by an IDS system. Session splicing can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on packet size or content to detect malicious activities. Session splicing can include sending packets with small MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) values, which are values that indicate the maximum size of packets that can be transmitted over a network. An urgency flag is a flag in the TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) header that indicates that the data in the packet is urgent and should be processed immediately by the receiver.
An urgency flag is not a technique to evade an IDS system, but it can be used to trigger an IDS system to generate an alert or a response.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Perform vulnerability analysis of a web application, www.luxurytreats.com. and determine the name of the alert with WASC ID 9. (Practical Question)
- A. Viewstate without MAC Signature
- B. Application Error Disclosure
- C. Absence of Anti-CSRF Tokens
- D. X-Frame-Options Header Not Set
Answer: B
Explanation:
Performing a vulnerability analysis on a web application involves identifying specific security weaknesses. In this case, the WASC ID 9 refers to "Application Error Disclosure."
* Vulnerability Description:
* Application Error Disclosure: This vulnerability occurs when a web application reveals too much information about internal errors, potentially aiding attackers in crafting specific attacks against the system.
* Detection and Mitigation:
* Error Handling: Ensure that error messages do not expose sensitive information and provide only necessary details to the end-user.
* Logging: Detailed error information should be logged securely for internal review without being exposed to users.
References:
* OWASP Top Ten Web Application Security Risks: OWASP
* WASC Threat Classification: WASC ID 9
NEW QUESTION # 70
Alex, a certified security professional, works for both aggressor and defender teams. His team's main responsibility involves enhancing protection and boosting the security standards of the organization. Identify Alex's team in this scenario.
- A. Purple learn
- B. Red team
- C. White team
- D. Blue team
Answer: A
Explanation:
Purple team is the team that Alex works for in this scenario. A team is a group of people that work together to achieve a common goal or objective. A team can have different types based on its role or function in an organization or a project. A purple team is a type of team that works for both aggressor and defender teams. A purple team can be used to enhance protection and boost the security standards of an organization by performing various tasks, such as testing, evaluating, improving, or integrating the security measures implemented by the defender team or exploited by the aggressor team. In the scenario, Alex is a certified security professional who works for both aggressor and defender teams. His team's main responsibility involves enhancing protection and boosting the security standards of the organization. This means that he works for a purple team. A white team is a type of team that acts as an observer or an arbitrator between the aggressor and defender teams. A white team can be used to monitor, evaluate, or adjudicate the performance or outcome of the aggressor and defender teams by providing feedback, guidance, or rules. A blue team is a type of team that acts as a defender or a protector of an organization's network or system. A blue team can be used to prevent, detect, or respond to attacks from external or internal threats by implementing various security measures, such as firewalls, antivirus, encryption, etc. A red team is a type of team that acts as an attacker or an adversary of an organization's network or system. A red team can be used to simulate realistic attacks from external or internal threats by exploiting various vulnerabilities, weaknesses, or gaps in the organization's security posture.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Desmond, a forensic officer, was investigating a compromised machine involved in various online attacks. For this purpose. Desmond employed a forensic tool to extract and analyze computer-based evidence to retrieve information related to websitesaccessed from the victim machine. Identify the computer-created evidence retrieved by Desmond in this scenario.
- A. Address books
- B. Cookies
- C. Documents
- D. Compressed files
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cookies are the computer-created evidence retrieved by Desmond in this scenario. Cookies are small files that are stored on a user's computer by a web browser when the user visits a website. Cookies can contain information such as user preferences, login details, browsing history, or tracking data. Cookies can be used to extract and analyze computer-based evidence to retrieve information related to websites accessed from the victim machine2. References: Cookies
NEW QUESTION # 72
Wilson, a security specialist in an organization, was instructed to enhance its cloud network security. To achieve this, Wilson deployed a network routing solution that established and managed communication between the on-premises consumer network and VPCs via a centralized unit. Identity the method used by Wilson to achieve cloud network security in this scenario.
- A. Transit gateways
- B. VPC endpoint
- C. Public and private subnets
- D. Virtual private cloud (VPC)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Transit gateways are the method used by Wilson to achieve cloud network security in this scenario. Cloud network security is a branch of cybersecurity that focuses on protecting and securing the network infrastructure and traffic in a cloud environment. Cloud network security can involve various methods or techniques, such as encryption, firewall, VPN, IDS/IPS, etc. Transit gateways are a method of cloud network security that provide a network routing solution that establishes and manages communication between on-premises consumer networks and VPCs (Virtual Private Clouds) via a centralized unit . Transit gateways can be used to simplify and secure the connectivity between different networks or VPCs in a cloud environment . In the scenario, Wilson was instructed to enhance its cloud network security. To achieve this, Wilson deployed a network routing solution that established and managed communication between the on-premises consumer network and VPCs via a centralized unit. This means that he used transit gateways for this purpose. A virtual private cloud (VPC) is not a method of cloud network security, but a term that describes an isolated and private section of a public cloud that provides exclusive access to cloud resources to a single organization or entity . A VPC can be used to create and configure virtual networks in a cloud environment .
Public and private subnets are not methods of cloud network security, but terms that describe segments of a VPC that have different levels of accessibility orvisibility . A public subnet is a segment of a VPC that can be accessed from the internet or other networks . A private subnet is a segment of a VPC that cannot be accessed from the internet or other networks . A VPC endpoint is not a method of cloud network security, but a term that describes an interface that allows private connectivity between a VPC and other AWS (Amazon Web Services) services or resources .
NEW QUESTION # 73
DigitalVault Corp., a premier financial institution, has recently seen a significant rise in advanced persistent threats (APTs)targetlng Its mainframe systems. Considering the sensitivity of the data stored, It wants to employ a strategy that deceives attackers into revealing their techniques. As part of its defense strategy, the cybersecurity team is deliberating over-deploying a honeypot system. Given the bank's requirements, the team are evaluating different types of honeypots. DigitalVault's primary goal Is to gather extensive Information about the attackers' methods without putting its actual systems at risk. Which of the following honeypots would BEST serve DigitalVault's intent?
- A. Production honeypots, which are part of the organization's active network and collect information about dally attacks.
- B. Reserch honeypots, aimed at understanding threats to a specific industry and sharing insights with the broader community.
- C. Low-interaction honeypots, designed to log basic information such as IP addresses and attack vectors.
- D. High-interaction honeypots, offering a real system's replica for attackers, and observing their every move.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* High-Interaction Honeypots:
* High-interaction honeypots simulate real systems, offering attackers a full operating environment to interact with, thereby providing detailed insights into their methods and techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 74
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