PMI PMP Test Engine Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps [Q236-Q252]

PMI PMP Test Engine Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

100% Free PMP Daily Practice Exam With 718 Questions

About the PMP Exam

The new edition of the PMP certification exam has been introduced on January 2, 2021. But, taking out time and getting the proper study materials still necessitates focus and discipline. Successful PMP candidates usually spend 35 to 40 hours to prepare, on average. The target audience remains the same and includes project managers, project leads, project engineers, software engineers, and project executives.

The test has 180 multiple-choice questions. 175 of them are scored while the other five are pretest items that don’t impact the score and are used as a legitimate and effective way to assess the validity of actual exam tasks. They are haphazardly placed throughout the exam.

The time allocated to complete the center-based PMP test is 230 Minutes. This duration is divided into two sections. The candidates have a 10-minutes break after the completion of the first one and then cannot go back to it. The remaining time after the break can only be allocated to the second section.

Irrespective of how good your project management knowledge and experience might be, you must still prepare for the exam. PMP applicants usually take help from multiple study guides, courses, and books, some of which will be disclosed after the overview of the registration process and the domains covered.

The PMP exam evaluates the learners’ understanding of a wide range of topic areas. The skills measures in this certification test are combined in several objectives that are listed below. They are:

Monitoring and Controlling (25%)
This subject area is all about assessing one’s skills in using techniques and tools to measure project performance so as to identify and quantify corrective actions and variances; following the change management plan to manage changes to the project; verifying that the project deliverables are conforming to the established quality standards; using the appropriate techniques and tools to meet the business needs and project requirements; monitoring and evaluating risk by determining whether the exposure has changed; evaluating the effectiveness of response strategies; managing the impact of opportunities and risks on the project; reviewing the issue log; determine the appropriate corrective actions; minimizing the impact on the project; monitoring procurement activities on the basis of the procurement plan; etc.
Executing (31%)
This topic validates the abilities of the individuals in acquiring and managing project resources through following procurement management plans and human resources; managing the implementation of the task according to the project management plan; executing the quality management plan; performing approved changes and corrective actions in accordance with the change management plan; executing approved actions in accordance with the risk action plan; managing the flow of the information plan in accordance with following the communication plan; maintaining the stakeholder relationships according the stakeholder management plan.
Planning (24%)
Answering the questions from the second topic, the test takers have to demonstrate that they are capable of assessing and reviewing exact project requirements, assumptions, and constraints with the stakeholders; establishing detailed project deliverables so as to use requirement gathering techniques; creating a scope management plan; managing the scope of the project; establishing the project schedule; managing timely completion of all projects; creating the human resource management plan; defining the responsibilities and roles of the project team members; creating the communication management plan depending on the stakeholder requirements and the project organizational plan; creating the procurement management plan depending on the project scope schedule, and budget; creating the quality management plan and defining the quality standards for the project and its products; creating the change management plan; planning for risk management; presenting for the risk management; conducting kick-off meeting and communicating the start of the project; creating the stakeholder management plan; and so on.
Initiating (13%)
Within this first domain, the questions assess the candidates’ knowledge and skills in performing project assessment based on the available information, collaborating with the relevant stakeholders so as to support the assessment of feasibility of new services or products within the given constraints or assumption. Also, within this objective, the examinees need to show their proficiency in identifying major deliverables depending on the requirements of the business; using the appropriate tools and techniques to perform the stakeholder analysis; identifying risks of high inflation, constraints, and assumption; analyzing and compiling gathered information to participate in the development of a project charter; obtaining project charter approval; conducting benefit analysis; informing the stakeholders of any approved project charter; etc.

NEW QUESTION 236
During project execution, it is noticed that the actual expenditure is too high compared to baseline cost estimates. What should the project manager do next?

A. Review assumption log to understand which cost assumptions were wrong.
B. Update cost forecasts and discuss the options with the project sponsor.
C. Revisit project scope and cut high-cost items.
D. Review historical data to get new cost estimates.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Executing

NEW QUESTION 237
After preparing the work breakdown structure (WBS), the project manager is ready to assign task areas to project team members. Subsequently, the project sponsor asks to add requirements that the team feels are unachievable.
What should the project manager do next?

A. Review the project scope and resources to assess the feasibility of satisfying the request.
B. Collect requirements, and conduct a team brainstorming session.
C. Use expert judgment to adjust the WBS based on the new requirements.
D. Evaluate the impact of the request on the project scope, schedule, and budget.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 238
During monitoring and controlling, a client identifies a defect with a product that will require changes to product requirements. The project is already running behind schedule.
What should the project manager do next?

A. Submit a change request to the change control board (CCB).
B. Escalate the issue to the project sponsor.
C. Apply schedule compression techniques to bring the project back on schedule.
D. Notify the clients that the issues will be taken care of once the project is back on schedule.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Monitoring and Controlling

NEW QUESTION 239
A project progressing on time and within budget is 30 days away from achieving its main milestone. The project manager then learns that a key component to achieve this milestone will be unavailable for 45 days.
What should the project manager do?

A. Send an amended progress report to all stakeholders.
B. Revise the risk management plan.
C. Update the issue log.
D. Notify stakeholders at the next project status meeting.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Planning

NEW QUESTION 240
You are the project manager on a project to improve traffic flow in the company's parking garage.
You decide to use flowcharting to______________

A. Forecast future outcomes
B. Show the results of a process
C. Show dependencies between tasks
D. Help anticipate how problems occur

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Mix Questions
Explanation:
Flowcharts depict the interrelationship of a system's components and show the relationships among process steps. They are often referred to as process maps as they display the sequence of steps and the branching possibilities for a process that transforms one or more inputs into one or more outputs.
Flowcharts show activities, decision points, branching loops, parallel paths, and the order of processing. As such, they aid the team in anticipating where quality problems might occur, which helps in developing approaches for dealing with these potential problems.

NEW QUESTION 241
A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A. Plan contracting
B. Selecting seller's
C. Requesting seller responses
D. Planning purchase and acquisition

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 242
During the project planning phase, a project manager called a meeting to discuss the product backlog with multiple stakeholders who represent the end users in various capacities.
Only one executive manager attended the meeting.
What should the project manager do?

A. Proceed with prioritization of the product backlog based on previous lessons learned and complete the project planning phase.
B. Meet with each stakeholder individually to gather input to the product backlog and begin project planning.
C. Proceed with the meeting in order to keep the project on track and start prioritizing the product backlog.
D. Reschedule the meeting to ensure the majority of stakeholders are present for the product backlog discussions.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 243
Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

A. Cost-benefit
B. Stakeholder
C. Product
D. Research

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 244
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

A. Process
B. Objective
C. Benefit
D. Initiative

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 245
Which of the following types of contracts has the least risk to the seller?

A. Cost-plus-award-fee
B. Firm-fixed-price
C. Fixed-price-incentive fee
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On a firm-fixed-price contract, the seller absorbs 100 percent of the risks; while on a cost-type contract, the buyer carries the most risk. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contracts have less risk to sellers than cost-plus-award-fee or cost-plus-incentive-fee contracts because the fee is fixed based on costs, so the seller is guaranteed a certain level of profit.

NEW QUESTION 246
Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A. Trend analysis
B. Earned value analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 247
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Initiating
C. Executing
D. Planning

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Executing

NEW QUESTION 248
Which of the following factors contributes the most to team communication?

A. Performance appraisals
B. External feedback
C. Smoothing over of team conflicts by the project manager
D. Collocation

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Mix Questions
Explanation:
Collocation is the placement of team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team, primarily through increased communication as well as improved working relationships and productivity.

NEW QUESTION 249
Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Conduct periodic project performance reviews.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 250
As you use the critical chain method in lieu of the critical path method in developing your schedule, assume you have determined the buffer schedule activities. Your planned activities are scheduled to their latest possible planed start and end dates. Therefore, you are focusing on______________

A. Managing the total float of the network paths
B. Managing the free float of each network path
C. Managing the total buffer durations against the durations of the task chains
D. Managing remaining buffer durations against the remaining durations of task chains

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The purpose of the critical chain method is to modify the project schedule to account for limited resources.
The schedule is built using duration estimates with required dependencies and defined constraints as inputs. Then, the critical path is calculated and resource availability is entered, which means there is a resource-limited schedule with an altered critical path. Buffers protect the critical chain from slippage, and the size of each buffer accounts for the uncertainty in the duration of the chain of dependent tasks that lead up to the buffer. This method then focuses on managing the remaining buffer durations against the remaining duration of task chains.

NEW QUESTION 251
The Project Manager is in the process of planning the project. The company he works for has had issues with previous projects in which there has been confusion over who is accountable for completion of various activities and processes associated with the projects. What document can he include in the project management plan that will help eliminate this problem?